Then the Devil orders him to prostrate before him and worship him, even tempting him with worldly possessions. How can the Devil even dare such an audacity with God? When the Devil wanted Jesus to comply with his orders, he (Jesus) replied by saying that it was written (in the previous Books):

"Thou shalt not prostrate before any but the Lord, your God; And HIM alone should you worship." S. Matthew 4:10

Jesus never called himself - 'Son of God' as far as I know - but he used to call himself the 'Son of Man' (ref. S. Mark 2:10) although he heard himself being called by that name he did not object - as assumed in the Bible - and did not consider the title exclusively for him.

According to the Biblical term in the Old and New Testaments, every God-fearing righteous person is called 'Son of God'. In S. Matthew 5:9 we read:

"Blessed are the peace-makers, for they shall be called the children of God."

S. Matthew 5:45:

"That ye may be children of your Father which is in heaven . . . "

S. Matthew 5:48

"Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect."

S. Matthew 6:1

" . . . otherwise ye have no reward of your Father which is in heaven."

S. Matthew 7:21:

"Not every one that sayeth unto me (Jesus), Lord, Lord, shall enter into the Kingdom of Heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven."

N.B. The word 'Lord' here was translated as 'Rab' in the Arabic version of the Bible so that people may be convinced that Jesus is God! But if one studies the rest of the Verse one will note that the Verse bears testimony to the subservience (to God's Will) of the Messiah (Jesus). Therefore the correct translation should be: